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Quelles sont les causes du changement linguistique chez Tolkien ?
#29
Queques passages à la volée :

J.R.R. Tolkien a écrit :
Verbal and substantival stems were less sharply distinguished in Eldarin than in some human languages, e.g. of "Indo-european" type. For example the tense stem was at once substantival and infinitive, and with addition of a pronominal element verbal and finite.

But Eldarin frequently employed an 'objective' form, where (say) an Indo-european language of later days would employ a 'vocative'.

Where no subject was expressed; or when the "action" was strictly impersonal, as in "(it) rains, (it) seems," the bare stem of the verb (or tense) was used uninflected. This was also (unlike Indo-European) the normal form when the subject was expressed by a full noun or name, except a person.

The unemphatic pronominal object thus originally as a rule followed immediately after the verbal stem. From this already in Common Eldarin grew up a system of inflexions for the objective pronoun - not subjective (as in Indo-European).
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